Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 01:36
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Full-screen Xbox handheld UI is coming to all Windows PCs “starting next year” - Ars Technica
You'll usually find your answer there.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Wolfspeed Stock Tumbles Amid Bankruptcy Plan. What's Next for the Chip Company. - Barron's
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What are some difficulties in a JEE aspirant's life?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.